बुधवार, 29 जून 2022

Topic:‐ GP12_D2_SH2_SET2_A (NTA UGC NET/JRF Paper-1)

 

Topic:‐ GP12_D2_SH2_SET2_A (NTA UGC NET/JRF Paper-1)

 

1)      Study the given table and answer te questions that follow.

Given below is a table having the number of atheletes (in Hudreds) who participated in a sports event from 4 different countries (A, B, C, D) M-Male F-Female.

Countries

Year       M    F        M   F         M  F       M     F

2016       3.6  3.2   4.2 3.7   3.4 2.8   5.6  4.2

2017       4.3 2.9   3.8 1.7    3.2 1,9   4.8  3.8

2018       5.3 3,9   5.4  3.7   2.2 6.4   6.4 4.2

2019       6.7 4.3   6.7 5.6    3.1 1.8   5.6 2.8

2020       8.3 7.2   6.9 5.4    4.1 2.5   5.4 2.7

 

Which country has the highest number of female athletes during 2016 to 2020?

[Question ID = 2001][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q01]

1. A [Option ID = 8001]

2. B [Option ID = 8002]

3. C [Option ID = 8003]

4. D [Option ID = 8004

Ans . 1. A [Option ID = 8001]

 

 

2)      Study the given table and answer te questions that follow.

Given below is a table having the number of atheletes (in Hudreds) who participated in a sports event from 4 different countries (A, B, C, D) M-Male F-Female.

Countries

Year       M    F        M   F         M  F       M     F

2016       3.6  3.2   4.2 3.7   3.4 2.8   5.6  4.2

2017       4.3 2.9   3.8 1.7    3.2 1,9   4.8  3.8

2018       5.3 3,9   5.4  3.7   2.2 6.4   6.4 4.2

2019       6.7 4.3   6.7 5.6    3.1 1.8   5.6 2.8

2020       8.3 7.2   6.9 5.4    4.1 2.5   5.4 2.7

 

What is the percentage of female athletes in 2017?

[Question ID = 2002][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q02]

1.       37% [Option ID = 8005]

2.  38% [Option ID = 8006]

3.  39% [Option ID = 8007]

4.  40% [Option ID = 8008]

Ans. 3.  39% [Option ID = 8007]

 

 

3)      Study the given table and answer te questions that follow.

Given below is a table having the number of atheletes (in Hudreds) who participated in a sports event from 4 different countries (A, B, C, D) M-Male F-Female.

Countries

Year       M    F        M   F         M  F       M     F

2016       3.6  3.2   4.2 3.7   3.4 2.8   5.6  4.2

2017       4.3 2.9   3.8 1.7    3.2 1,9   4.8  3.8

2018       5.3 3,9   5.4  3.7   2.2 6.4   6.4 4.2

2019       6.7 4.3   6.7 5.6    3.1 1.8   5.6 2.8

2020       8.3 7.2   6.9 5.4    4.1 2.5   5.4 2.7

 

Find out the difference between average male athletes in 2016 and average male athletes in 2017.

[Question ID = 2003][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q03]

1. 0.6

[Option ID = 8009]

2. 0.7

[Option ID = 8010]

3. 0.8

[Option ID = 8011]

4. 0.9

[Option ID = 8012]

Ans. 2. 0.7 [Option ID = 8010]

 

 

4)      Study the given table and answer te questions that follow.

Given below is a table having the number of atheletes (in Hudreds) who participated in a sports event from 4 different countries (A, B, C, D) M-Male F-Female.

Countries

Year       M    F        M   F         M  F       M     F

2016       3.6  3.2   4.2 3.7   3.4 2.8   5.6  4.2

2017       4.3 2.9   3.8 1.7    3.2 1,9   4.8  3.8

2018       5.3 3,9   5.4  3.7   2.2 6.4   6.4 4.2

2019       6.7 4.3   6.7 5.6    3.1 1.8   5.6 2.8

2020       8.3 7.2   6.9 5.4    4.1 2.5   5.4 2.7

Which country has the best 'Total Male‐Female ratio' from 2016 to 2020?

[Question ID = 2004][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q04] 5) 1)

1. A [Option ID = 8013]

2. B [Option ID = 8014]

3. C [Option ID = 8015]

4. D [Option ID = 8016]

Ans. 4. D [Option ID = 8016]

 

 

5)      Study the given table and answer te questions that follow.

Given below is a table having the number of atheletes (in Hudreds) who participated in a sports event from 4 different countries (A, B, C, D) M-Male F-Female.

Countries

Year       M    F        M   F         M  F       M     F

2016       3.6  3.2   4.2 3.7   3.4 2.8   5.6  4.2

2017       4.3 2.9   3.8 1.7    3.2 1,9   4.8  3.8

2018       5.3 3,9   5.4  3.7   2.2 6.4   6.4 4.2

2019       6.7 4.3   6.7 5.6    3.1 1.8   5.6 2.8

2020       8.3 7.2   6.9 5.4    4.1 2.5   5.4 2.7

Which country has the best 'Total Male‐Female ratio' from 2016 to 2020?

[Question ID = 2005][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q05]

1. A

[Option ID = 8017]

2. B

[Option ID = 8018]

3. C

[Option ID = 8019]

4. D

[Option ID = 8020]

Ans. 3. C [Option ID = 8019]

 

 

Topic : GP12_D2_SH2_SET2_B

 

1)      What is the type of graphic organiser or mind tool used for knowledge organisation that can help learners interpret, represent, and organise information by making a graphic in cooperation with others?

[Question ID = 2006][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q06]

1. Concept mapping [Option ID = 8021]

2. Hyper media [Option ID = 8022]

3. Gestural prompts [Option ID = 8023]

4. Divergent question 3) 4) [Option ID = 8024]

Ans. 1. Concept mapping [Option ID = 8021]

 

2)      What is the name of the process in which the listener provides feedback to the speaker about the message heard and the emotion conveyed and lets the speaker realize how he or she is being understood and respected?

[Question ID = 2007][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q07]

1. Active responding

[Option ID = 8025]

2. Active listening

[Option ID = 8026]

3. Centering behaviour

[Option ID = 8027]

4. Adaptive teaching

[Option ID = 8028]

Ans 2. Active listening [Option ID = 8026]

 

3)      Match List I with List II

List I                               List II

Organization              Nature of course for MOOC

A. CEC                           I. Out of school students

B. IGNOU                     II. Undergraduate education

C. NIOS                         III. Teacher Training Programme

D. NITTTR                    IV. School education

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2008][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q08]

1. A ‐III , B ‐II , C ‐I , D ‐IV [Option ID = 8029]

2. A ‐II , B ‐I , C ‐IV , D ‐III [Option ID = 8030]

3. A ‐I , B ‐IV , C ‐III , D ‐II [Option ID = 8031]

4. A ‐IV , B ‐III , C ‐II , D ‐I [Option ID = 8032]

Ans. 2. A ‐II , B ‐I , C ‐IV , D ‐III [Option ID = 8030]

 

4)      Given below are two statements

Statement I: In a learning organisation, the learning of teachers, their professional development, and the learning of children, their education, are inevitably complementary and mutually reinforcing.

Statement II: Intrapersonal intelligence does not involve understanding the inner world of emotions and thoughts, and developing the ability to control and consciously work with them.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

[Question ID = 2009][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q09] 5) 6) 7)

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [Option ID = 8033]

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [Option ID = 8034]

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect [Option ID = 8035]

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct[Option ID = 8036]

ANS. 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect [Option ID = 8035]

 

5) Which among the following constitute personal competence?

A. Empathy

B. Motivation

C. Social skills

D. Self awareness

E. Self regulation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2010][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q10]

1. A, B and C only

[Option ID = 8037]

2. B, C and D only

[Option ID = 8038]

3. B, D and E only/

[Option ID = 8039]

4. C, D and E only

[Option ID = 8040]

Ans. 3. B, D and E only [Option ID = 8039]

 

 

6)      The form of asking mainly closed‐ended questions that has been used in connection with the examination of people's normative standards is known as

[Question ID = 2011][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q11]

1. Abductive technique

[Option ID = 8041]

2. Vignette technique [Option ID = 8042]

3. Hermeneutics technique [Option ID = 8043]

4. Outlier technique [Option ID = 8044]

Ans. 2. Vignette technique [Option ID = 8042]

 

7)      What type of validity is this in which the researcher is encouraged to deduce hypotheses from a theory that is relevant to the concept?

[Question ID = 2012][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q12]

1. Construct validity [Option ID = 8045]

2. Concurrent validity [Option ID = 8046]

3. Face validity [Option ID = 8047] 8) 9)

4. Convergent validity [Option ID = 8048]

Ans. 1. Construct validity [Option ID = 8045]

 

8)      Given below are two statements

Statement I: Open coding is achieved by linking codes to contacts to consequences to patterns of interaction and to causes.

Statement II: Axial coding is the process of breaking down, examining, comparing, conceptualizing, and categorizing data. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

[Question ID = 2013][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q13]

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [Option ID = 8049]

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [Option ID = 8050]

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect [Option ID = 8051]

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct [Option ID = 8052]

Ans. 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [Option ID = 8050]

 

9)      Match List I with List II

List I       List II

A. Selective coding         I. To discover the most significant or frequent initial code that makes the most analytical sense

B. Initial coding                                II. The procedure of selecting the core category, Systematically relating it to other categories, validating their relationships, and filling in categories that need further refinement and development

C. Focused coding           III. It specifies possible relationships between categories, these are integrative

D. Theoretical coding     IV. Comparing data with data, staying close to and remain open to exploring what is happening in data, construct and keep the code short, simple, precise and active.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2014][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q14]

1. A ‐II , B ‐IV , C ‐I , D ‐III [Option ID = 8053]

2. A ‐IV , B ‐I , C ‐III , D ‐II [Option ID = 8054]

3. A ‐I , B ‐III , C ‐II , D ‐IV [Option ID = 8055]

4. A ‐III , B ‐II , C ‐IV , D ‐I [Option ID = 8056]

Ans. 1. A ‐II , B ‐IV , C ‐I , D ‐III [Option ID = 8053]

 

 

10)   There are various steps for creating survey forms using ICT application like Google Forms.

A. Select question type and create

B. Give name to survey form and save

C. Make questions mandatory/keep optional

D. Share with respondents

E. Configure the settings

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

[Question ID = 2015][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q15]

1. B, D, E, C, A [Option ID = 8057]

2. C, D, A, B, E [Option ID = 8058]

3. A, C, B, E, D [Option ID = 8059]

4. D, B, C, A, E [Option ID = 8060]

Ans. 3. A, C, B, E, D [Option ID = 8059]

 

11)   In a classroom context, when innumerable meaningful messages emanate from a finite number of linguistic signals, it is called

[Question ID = 2016][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q16]

1. Semanticism [Option ID = 8061]

2. Cognition [Option ID = 8062]

3. Productivity [Option ID = 8063]

4. Information processing [Option ID = 8064]

Ans. 3. Productivity [Option ID = 8063]

 

12)   The advantages of diagonal communication are:

A. Resistance

B. Sidetracking

C. Anomie

D. Morale boosting

E. Co‐ordination

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2017][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q17]

1. A, B and C only [Option ID = 8065]

2.       B, C and D only (Option ID 8066)

3.       C D and  E 0nly (Option ID 8067)

4.       B, D and E only [Option ID = 8068]

Ans.       4.   B, D and E only [Option ID = 8068]

 

13)   Given below are two statements

Statement I: Communication reflects the dimension of power.

Statement II: Power and unethical communication are strongly inter‐related.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

[Question ID = 2018][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q18]

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true [Option ID = 8069] 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false [Option ID = 8070]

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false [Option ID = 8071]

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true [Option ID = 8072]

Ans. 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false [Option ID = 8071]

 

14)   Identify the sequence of cultural barriers in communication as listed by experts:

A. Methods of conflict resolution

B. Difference in tolerance of conflicts

C. Semantic

D. Tone difference

E. Word connotation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

[Question ID = 2019][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q19]

1. C, E, D, B, A [Option ID = 8073]

2. D, B, C, A, E 15) 16) 17) [Option ID = 8074]

3. E, A, B, C, D [Option ID = 8075]

4. A, C, E, D, B [Option ID = 8076]

Ans. 1. C, E, D, B, A [Option ID = 8073]

 

15) Match List I with List II

List I                                       List II

Communication paradigms         Description

A. Encoding‐decoding                   I. Realistic imagination of others' views

B. Intentionalist                               II. Participants are autonomous information processors

C. Perspective taking                     III. Conceiving communication as a process that uses language

D. Dialogism                                      IV. Purposeful use of language

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2020][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q20]

1.       A ‐II , B ‐III , C ‐IV , D ‐I

[Option ID = 8077]

2.       A ‐III , B ‐IV , C ‐I , D ‐II [Option ID = 8078]

3.       A ‐IV , B ‐I , C ‐II , D ‐III

[Option ID = 8079]

4.       A ‐I , B ‐II , C ‐III , D ‐IV

[Option ID = 8080]

Ans. 2.  A ‐III , B ‐IV , C ‐I , D ‐II [Option ID = 8078]

 

16)   What number comes next in this sequence?

19648, 1728, 112, ?

[Question ID = 2021][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q21]

1. 2 [Option ID = 8081]

2. 12 [Option ID = 8082]

3. 22 [Option ID = 8083]

4. 62 [Option ID = 8084]

Ans. 1. 2 [Option ID = 8081]

 

17) A, B and C share a certain sum of money among themselves. A gets 35%, B gets ₹1500 and C gets 1/20. How much is the original sum of money?

[Question ID = 2022][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q22]

1.       ₹ 1500

[Option ID = 8085]

2.       ₹ 2000

[Option ID = 8086]

3.       ₹ 2250

[Option ID = 8087]

4.       ₹ 2500

[Option ID = 8088]

Ans. 4.  ₹ 2500 [Option ID = 8088]

 

17)   Senthil said, "This lady is the wife of the grandson of my mother." Senthil is the only son of his mother and has no sister. Who is Senthil to the lady?

[Question ID = 2023][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q23]

1. Husband [Option ID = 8089]

2. Father‐in‐law [Option ID = 8090]

3. Daughter‐in‐law [Option ID = 8091]

4. Brother [Option ID = 8092]

Ans. 2. Father‐in‐law [Option ID = 8090]

 

19) Given below are two statements

Statement I: If two numbers divided by a third number give the same remainder, their difference is exactly divisible by that number.

Statement II: Least common multiple of two or more given numbers is the largest number which is exactly divisible by each of them.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

[Question ID = 2024][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q24]

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true [Option ID = 8093]

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false [Option ID = 8094]

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false [Option ID = 8095]

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true  [Option ID = 8096]

Ans. 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false [Option ID = 8095]

 

20) Which of the following statements are correct?

A.      A bullet covers 55 meters in two secondsits speed is 99 km/hr.

B.      A can complete a work in 10 days. In 5 days, he can complete 1/5 fraction of the work

C.      Walking at 3/4of his useal speeda girl islate by 2/1/2 hours. Her useal time is 7/1/2 hours.

Chuse the correct answerfrom the optionsgiven below :

[Question ID = 2025][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q25]

1. A and C only/केवल A और C [Option ID = 8097]

 2. A and B only/केवल A और B [Option ID = 8098]

3. B and C only/केवल B और C [Option ID = 8099]

4. C only/केवल C [Option ID = 8100]

Ans. 1. A and C only/केवल A और C [Option ID = 8097]

 

21) Match List I with List II

List I                                                                       List II

Proposition in Square of Opposition      Resultant

A. If 'A' is False                                                  I. 'E' is False;' I' is True

B. If 'E' is False                                                   II. 'A' is True; 'E' is True

C. If 'I' is False                                                    III. 'A' and 'O' are Undetermined

D. If 'O' is False                                                 IV. 'E' and 'I' are Undetermined

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2026][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q26]

1. A ‐IV , B ‐III , C ‐II , D ‐I [Option ID = 8101]

2. A ‐III , B ‐II , C ‐I , D ‐IV [Option ID = 8102]

3. A ‐II , B ‐IV , C ‐I , D ‐III [Option ID = 8103]

4. A ‐I , B ‐II , C ‐III , D ‐IV [Option ID = 8104]

Ans. 1. A ‐IV , B ‐III , C ‐II , D ‐I [Option ID = 8101]

 

22) When a middle term does not go further than producing a state of mental oscillation between two opposite views, the case is known as :

[Question ID = 2027][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q27]

1. Fallacy of Viruddha (contradictory middle [Option ID = 8105]

2. Fallacy of Asiddha (unproved middle [Option ID = 8106]

3. Fallacy of Prakaranasam (counteracted middle [Option ID = 8107]

4. Fallacy of Savyabhichara (irregular middle [Option ID = 8108]

Ans. 3. Fallacy of Prakaranasam (counteracted middle [Option ID = 8107]

 

23) Name the fallacy committed in "Some good actors are not strong men. All professional wrestlers are strong men. Therefore, All professional wrestlers are good actors."

[Question ID = 2028][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q28]

1. Illicit major [Option ID = 8109]

2. Illicit minor [Option ID = 8110]

3. Undistributed middle [Option ID = 8111]

4. Affirmative conclusion from Negative Premises [Option ID = 8112]

Ans. 4. Affirmative conclusion from Negative Premises [Option ID = 8112]

 

24) Which of the following is taken to mean inference by elimination, in which the inferred character is the residuum of a process of elimination that excludes other characters?

[Question ID = 2029][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q29]

1. Purvavat Anumana [Option ID = 8113]

2. Sheshavat Anumana [Option ID = 8114]

3. Samanyatodrshta [Option ID = 8115]

4. Paksa [Option ID = 8116]

Ans. 2. Sheshavat Anumana [Option ID = 8114]

 

25) Which of the following pertains to fallacy of ambiguity?

[Question ID = 2030][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q30]

1. Equivocation [Option ID = 8117]

2. The straw man [Option ID = 8118]

3. Hasty generalization [Option ID = 8119]

4. The red herring [Option ID = 8120]

Ans. 1. Equivocation [Option ID = 8117]

 

26) What is a Utility program?

[Question ID = 2031][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q31]

1. It translates data into a format understood by the device [Option ID = 8121]

2. It permits the sharing and exchange of data [Option ID = 8122]

3. It makes copies of files on another storage device [Option ID = 8123]

4. It is a part of the operating system which carries out defragmentation or disk formatting [Option ID = 8124]

Ans. 4. It is a part of the operating system which carries out defragmentation or disk formatting [Option ID = 8124]

 

27) Match List I with List II

List I                                       List II

A. Network System         I. Email

B. Operating System      II. Firewall

C. Memory                          III. Mac

D. Communication          IV. ROM

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2032][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q32]

1. A ‐ I , B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV [Option ID = 8125]

2. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II [Option ID = 8126]

3. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I [Option ID = 8127]

4. A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ III [Option ID = 8128]

Ans. 3. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I [Option ID = 8127]

 

28) Read the following statement and choose the CORRECT code:

A. Radio frequency identification systems use radio waves to read and capture information

B. MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition) characters are easy to forge and cannot be written over

C. OMR (Optical Mark Recognition) reads marks written in pencil or pen in specific places on a term.

D. Optical Character Recognition (OCR) scans the text and converts it into a computer‐readable format E. Barcodes can be forged or damaged

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2033][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q33]

1. A, B and C only/केवल A, B और C [Option ID = 8129]

2. B, C, D and E only/केवल B, C, D और E [Option ID = 8130]

3. A, C and E only/केवल A, C और E [Option ID = 8131]

4. A, C, D and E only/केवल A, C, D और E [Option ID = 8132]

Ans. 4. A, C, D and E only/केवल A, C, D और E [Option ID = 8132]

 

29) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Every time a device connects to a network, it is given an IP (Internet Protocol) address.

Statement II: Devices that never disconnect retain the same IP address.

In the light of the statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

[Question ID = 2034][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q34]

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true [Option ID = 8133]

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false [Option ID = 8134]

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false  [Option ID = 8135]

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true [Option ID = 8136]

Ans. 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true [Option ID = 8133]

 

30) Match List I with List II

List I                                                       List II

A. Measurement Application     I. Automatic Oven

B. Control Application                   II. Website

C. Modelling Application             III. Weather station

D. Communication Application IV. Car Crash Simulator

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2035][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q35]

1. A ‐ I, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 8137]

2. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 8138]

3. A ‐ II, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ III [Option ID = 8139]

4. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ I [Option ID = 8140]

Ans. 2. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 8138]

 

31) Which of the following are the missions of the National Action Plan on Climate Change?

A. National Solar Mission

B. Green Indian Mission

C. Western Ghat Development Mission

D. National Water Mission

E. Air Pollution Mitigation Mission

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2036][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q36]

1. A, B and D only/केवल A, B और D [Option ID = 8141]

2. A, B, D and E only/केवल A, B, D और E [Option ID = 8142]

3. A, B and E only/केवल A, B और E [Option ID = 8143]

 4. A, C, D and E only/केवल A, C, D और E [Option ID = 8144]

Ans. 1. A, B and D only/केवल A, B और D [Option ID = 8141]

 

32) Nationally Determined Contributions of European Union (EU) countries aim at a reduction in Green House Gas emissions by the year 2030 (in the reference to 1990 levels) to the extent of

[Question ID = 2037][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q37]

1. 40% [Option ID = 8145]

2. 50% [Option ID = 8146]

3. 35% [Option ID = 8147]

4. 55% [Option ID = 8148]

Ans. 1. 40% [Option ID = 8145]

 

33) Which of the following contaminants in water can cause adverse human effects such as mental disturbance and impairment of speech, hearing and vision?

[Question ID = 2038][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q38]

1. Arsenic [Option ID = 8149]

2. Methyl mercury [Option ID = 8150]

3. Lead [Option ID = 8151]

4. Nickel and Chromium [Option ID = 8152]

Ans. 2. Methyl mercury [Option ID = 8150]

 

34) Identify the correct sequence of countries that are the world's leading geothermal power (in MW) producers.

 A. New Zealand

 B. Iceland

C. USA

D. Indonesia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

[Question ID = 2039][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q39]

1. C > A > B > D [Option ID = 8153]

2. A > C > B > D [Option ID = 8154]

3. D > C > A > B [Option ID = 8155]

4. C > D > A > B [Option ID = 8156]

Ans. 4. C > D > A > B [Option ID = 8156]

 

35) Match List I with List II

List I                                                       List II

A. Montreal Protocol     I. Environment and sustainable development

B. Rio Summit                   II. Reduce the emission of Green House Gases

C. Kyoto protocol             III. Climate change mitigation and adaptation

D. Paris agreement         IV. Ozone Depletion

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2040][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q40]

1. A ‐III , B ‐I , C ‐II , D ‐IV [Option ID = 8157]

2. A ‐II , B ‐III , C ‐IV , D ‐I [Option ID = 8158]

3. A ‐IV , B ‐I , C ‐II , D ‐III [Option ID = 8159]

4. A ‐IV , B ‐II , C ‐I , D ‐III [Option ID = 8160]

Ans. 3. A ‐IV , B ‐I , C ‐II , D ‐III [Option ID = 8159]

 

36) Association of Indian Univercities (AIU) is established with an objective to:

A. Maintain quality and standards of universities

B. Serve as an Inter‐University Organization

C. To facilitate communication, co‐ordination and mutual consultation amongst universities

D. To recognise universities to run different cources

E. To act as a liaism between the universities and the governments.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2041][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q41]

1. A, B and C only/केवल A, B और C [Option ID = 8161]

2. B, C and E only/केवल B, C और E [Option ID = 8162]

3. B, C and D only/केवल B, C और D [Option ID = 8163]

4. A, B, C and D only/केवल A, B, C और D [Option ID = 8164]

Ans. 2. B, C and E only/केवल B, C और E [Option ID = 8162]

 

37) Which of the following is NOT a parameter for ranking according to NIRF?

[Question ID = 2042][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q42]

1. Teaching, Learning and Resources [Option ID = 8165]

2. Campus Placement [Option ID = 8166]

3. Research and Professional practice [Option ID = 8167]

4. Outreach and inclusivity [Option ID = 8168]

Ans. 2. Campus Placement [Option ID = 8166]

 

38) SWAYAM is initiated by Govt of India with an objective to

A. Ensure best quality content produced and delivered

B. Provide quality materials with nominal cost

C. Teach all classes from class‐IX to PG

D.Assess students continuously and grant degrees

E. Accessed by anyone, anywere at anytime

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2043][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q43]

1. A, C and D only/केवल A, C और D [Option ID = 8169]

2. A, C and E only/केवल A, C और E [Option ID = 8170]

3. A, B and C only/केवल A, B और C [Option ID = 8171]

4. B, C and D only/केवल B, C और D [Option ID = 8172]

Ans. 2. A, C and E only/केवल A, C और E [Option ID = 8170]

 

39) Match List I with List II

List I                                                                       List II

A. The Education commission                    I. 2009

B. National Policy on Education                                II. 1964‐66

C. University Education Commission      III. 1986

D. National Knowlegde Commission      IV. 1948‐49

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[Question ID = 2044][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q44]

1. A ‐I , B ‐III , C ‐II , D ‐IV

[Option ID = 8173]

2. A ‐IV , B ‐III , C ‐II , D ‐I

[Option ID = 8174]

3. A ‐I, B ‐III , C ‐IV , D ‐II

[Option ID = 8175]

4. A ‐II , B ‐III , C ‐IV , D ‐I

[Option ID = 8176]

Ans. 4. A ‐II , B ‐III , C ‐IV , D ‐I [Option ID = 8176]

 

40) The statutory body responsible for maintaining quality aand standard of teacher education in the country is:

[Question ID = 2045][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q45]

1. AICTE/ए आई सी टी ई [Option ID = 8177]

2. NCTE/एन सी टी ई [Option ID = 8178]

3. NCERT/एन सी ई आर टी [Option ID = 8179]

4. UGC/यूजी सी [Option ID = 8180]

Ans. 2. NCTE/एन सी टी ई [Option ID = 8178]

 

Topic:‐ GP12_D2_SH2_SET2_C

1)      Read the given passage and answer the following question.

 

Several organisational factors that cause stress‐particularly task and role demands‐are controlled by management and thus can be modified or changed. Strategies to consider include improved employee selection and job placement, training, realistic goal‐setting, redesign of jobs, increased employee involvement, improved organisational communication, employee sabbticals, and corporate wellness programmes. Certain jobs are more stressful than others, but, as we have seen, individuals differ in their response to stressful situations. We know individuals with little experience or an external locus of control tend to be more prone to stress. Selection and placement decisions should take these facts into consideration. Obiviously, management should not restrict hiring to only experienced individuals with an internal locus, but such individuals may adapt better to high stress jobs more effectively . Similarly, training can increase an individual's self‐ efficacy and thus lessen job strain. Individuals perform better when they have specific and challenging goals and receive feedback on their progress toward these goals. Goals can reduce stress as well as provide motivation. Emloyee who are highly committed to their goals and see purpose in their jobs experience less stress, because they are more likely to perceive stress as challenge rather than a hindrance. Specific goals perceived as attainable clarify performance expectation. In addition, goal feedback reduces uncertainties about actual job performance. The result is less employee frustration, role ambiguity and stress. Predesigning job to give emloyee more responsibility, more meaningful work, more autonomy and increased feedback can reduce stress because these factors give employees greater control over work activities and less dependence on others.

 

Which of the following form the management strategy for reducing organisational stress factor? (A) Achievable goals

(B) Employee wellness

(C) Compulsory leave

(D) Top‐down communication

Choose the correct option:

[Question ID = 2046][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q46]

1. A and B/केवल A और B [Option ID = 8181]

2. B and C/केवल B और C [Option ID = 8182]

3. C and D/केवल C और D [Option ID = 8183]

4. A and D/केवल A और D [Option ID = 8184]

Ans. 1. A and B/केवल A और B [Option ID = 8181]

 

2)      Read the given passage and answer the following question.

 

Several organisational factors that cause stress‐particularly task and role demands‐are controlled by management and thus can be modified or changed. Strategies to consider include improved employee selection and job placement, training, realistic goal‐setting, redesign of jobs, increased employee involvement, improved organisational communication, employee sabbticals, and corporate wellness programmes. Certain jobs are more stressful than others, but, as we have seen, individuals differ in their response to stressful situations. We know individuals with little experience or an external locus of control tend to be more prone to stress. Selection and placement decisions should take these facts into consideration. Obiviously, management should not restrict hiring to only experienced individuals with an internal locus, but such individuals may adapt better to high stress jobs more effectively . Similarly, training can increase an individual's self‐ efficacy and thus lessen job strain. Individuals perform better when they have specific and challenging goals and receive feedback on their progress toward these goals. Goals can reduce stress as well as provide motivation. Emloyee who are highly committed to their goals and see purpose in their jobs experience less stress, because they are more likely to perceive stress as challenge rather than a hindrance. Specific goals perceived as attainable clarify performance expectation. In addition, goal feedback reduces uncertainties about actual job performance. The result is less employee frustration, role ambiguity and stress. Predesigning job to give emloyee more responsibility, more meaningful work, more autonomy and increased feedback can reduce stress because these factors give employees greater control over work activities and less dependence on others.

What type of people are more prone to stress than others in the organisation?

[Question ID = 2047][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q47]

1. Individuals with job experience [Option ID = 8185]

2. People with outside position of control [Option ID = 8186]

3. Employee with internal locus [Option ID = 8187]

4. People who are assigned new responsibilities [Option ID = 8188]

Ans. 2. People with outside position of control [Option ID = 8186]

 

3)      Read the given passage and answer the following question.

Several organisational factors that cause stress‐particularly task and role demands‐are controlled by management and thus can be modified or changed. Strategies to consider include improved employee selection and job placement, training, realistic goal‐setting, redesign of jobs, increased employee involvement, improved organisational communication, employee sabbticals, and corporate wellness programmes. Certain jobs are more stressful than others, but, as we have seen, individuals differ in their response to stressful situations. We know individuals with little experience or an external locus of control tend to be more prone to stress. Selection and placement decisions should take these facts into consideration. Obiviously, management should not restrict hiring to only experienced individuals with an internal locus, but such individuals may adapt better to high stress jobs more effectively . Similarly, training can increase an individual's self‐ efficacy and thus lessen job strain. Individuals perform better when they have specific and challenging goals and receive feedback on their progress toward these goals. Goals can reduce stress as well as provide motivation. Emloyee who are highly committed to their goals and see purpose in their jobs experience less stress, because they are more likely to perceive stress as challenge rather than a hindrance. Specific goals perceived as attainable clarify performance expectation. In addition, goal feedback reduces uncertainties about actual job performance. The result is less employee frustration, role ambiguity and stress. Predesigning job to give emloyee more responsibility, more meaningful work, more autonomy and increased feedback can reduce stress because these factors give employees greater control over work activities and less dependence on others.

Which of the following can reduce the job strain?

(A) Hiring of only young people

(B) Emphasising performance expectation

(C) Commitment to the job

(D) Perception of hindrances as challenges

Choose the correct option:

[Question ID = 2048][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q48]

1. A and B/केवल A और B [Option ID = 8189]

2. B and C/केवल B और C [Option ID = 8190]

3. C and D/केवल C और D [Option ID = 8191]

4. A and D/केवल A और D [Option ID = 8192]

Ans. 3. C and D/केवल C और D [Option ID = 8191]

 

4)      Read the given passage and answer the following question.

Several organisational factors that cause stress‐particularly task and role demands‐are controlled by management and thus can be modified or changed. Strategies to consider include improved employee selection and job placement, training, realistic goal‐setting, redesign of jobs, increased employee involvement, improved organisational communication, employee sabbticals, and corporate wellness programmes. Certain jobs are more stressful than others, but, as we have seen, individuals differ in their response to stressful situations. We know individuals with little experience or an external locus of control tend to be more prone to stress. Selection and placement decisions should take these facts into consideration. Obiviously, management should not restrict hiring to only experienced individuals with an internal locus, but such individuals may adapt better to high stress jobs more effectively . Similarly, training can increase an individual's self‐ efficacy and thus lessen job strain. Individuals perform better when they have specific and challenging goals and receive feedback on their progress toward these goals. Goals can reduce stress as well as provide motivation. Emloyee who are highly committed to their goals and see purpose in their jobs experience less stress, because they are more likely to perceive stress as challenge rather than a hindrance. Specific goals perceived as attainable clarify performance expectation. In addition, goal feedback reduces uncertainties about actual job performance. The result is less employee frustration, role ambiguity and stress. Predesigning job to give emloyee more responsibility, more meaningful work, more autonomy and increased feedback can reduce stress because these factors give employees greater control over work activities and less dependence on others.

Employee frustration and role ambiguity can be reduced by

[Question ID = 2049][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q49]

1. Assigning low stress work [Option ID = 8193]

2. Harsh evaluation of job performance [Option ID = 8194]

3. Changing the level of task performance [Option ID = 8195]

4. Providing performance feedback to employee [Option ID = 8196]

Ans. 4. Providing performance feedback to employee [Option ID = 8196]

 

5)      Read the given passage and answer the following question.

Several organisational factors that cause stress‐particularly task and role demands‐are controlled by management and thus can be modified or changed. Strategies to consider include improved employee selection and job placement, training, realistic goal‐setting, redesign of jobs, increased employee involvement, improved organisational communication, employee sabbticals, and corporate wellness programmes. Certain jobs are more stressful than others, but, as we have seen, individuals differ in their response to stressful situations. We know individuals with little experience or an external locus of control tend to be more prone to stress. Selection and placement decisions should take these facts into consideration. Obiviously, management should not restrict hiring to only experienced individuals with an internal locus, but such individuals may adapt better to high stress jobs more effectively . Similarly, training can increase an individual's self‐ efficacy and thus lessen job strain. Individuals perform better when they have specific and challenging goals and receive feedback on their progress toward these goals. Goals can reduce stress as well as provide motivation. Emloyee who are highly committed to their goals and see purpose in their jobs experience less stress, because they are more likely to perceive stress as challenge rather than a hindrance. Specific goals perceived as attainable clarify performance expectation. In addition, goal feedback reduces uncertainties about actual job performance. The result is less employee frustration, role ambiguity and stress. Predesigning job to give emloyee more responsibility, more meaningful work, more autonomy and increased feedback can reduce stress because these factors give employees greater control over work activities and less dependence on others.

 

The measures suggested in the passage to reduce organisational stress are:

(A) Redeployment of employees

(B) Allowing workers more control over their activities

(C) Retrenchment of non‐performers

(D) Re‐distribution of specific goals

 (E) Re‐designing of jobs

Choose the correct option:

[Question ID = 2050][Question Description = S2_qSNz_PG_GP12_Q50]

1. A, B, C only/केवल A, B और C [Option ID = 8197]

 2. B, C, D only/केवल B, C और D [Option ID = 8198]

3. C, D, E only/केवल C, D और E [Option ID = 8199]

4. A, B, E only/केवल A, B और E [Option ID = 8200]

Ans. 4. A, B, E only/केवल A, B और E [Option ID = 8200]

 

 

 ID

 Correct

Option ID

 2001 8001

 2002 8007

 2003 8010

 2004 8016

 2005 8019

 2006 8021

 2007 8026

 2008 8030

 2009 8035

 2010 8039

 2011 8042

 2012 8045

 2013 8050

 2014 8053

 2015 8059

 2016 8063

 2017 8068

 2018 8071

 2019 8073

 2020 8078

 2021 8081

 2022 8088

 2023 8090

 2024 8095

 2025 8097

 2026 8101

 2027 8107

 2028 8112

 2029 8114

 2030 8117

 2031 8124

 2032 8127

 2033 8132

 2034 8133

 2035 8138

 2036 8141

 2037 8145

 2038 8150

 2039 8156

 2040 8159

 2041 8162

 2042 8166

 2043 8170

 2044 8176

 2045 8178

 2046 8181

 2047 8186

 2048 8191

 2049 8196

 2050 8200

 

 

 

 

 

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