गुरुवार, 30 जून 2022

UGC NET JRF SEPT. 2013 PAPER-I SET-W

 

UGC NET JRF SEPT.  2013 PAPER-I  SET-W

 

Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.

Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.

In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will

be evaluated.

 

1. The world population growth rate at a

certain reference year was 3.5%.

Assuming exponential growth of

population, after how many years, the

population of the world would have

increased by a factor 16 ?

(A) ~ 80 years (B) ~ 40 years

(C) ~ 160 years (D) ~ 320 years

ANS . 1 A

 

2. Telephone is an example of

(A) linear communication

(B) non-linear communication

(C) circular

(D) mechanized

ANS . 2 A

 

3. Means of grapevine communication

are

(A) formal (B) informal

(C) critical (D) corporate

ANS . 3 B

 

4. Communication issues at the

international level are addressed by

(A) ILO (B) ITU

(C) UNDP (D) UNESCO

ANS . 4 D

 

5. Referential framing used by TV

audience connects media with

(A) reality (B) falsity

(C) negativity (D) passivity

ANS . 5 A

 

6. The communicated knowledge in a

classroom is considered as

(A) non-pervasive treasure

(B) limited judgement

(C) autonomous virtue

(D) cultural capital

ANS . 6 D

 

7. Classroom communication is

normally considered as

(A) effective   (B) affective

(C) cognitive   (D) non-selective

ANS . 7 C

 

8. A person writes all the numbers from

0 to 99. The number of times digit 3

will be written is

(A) 18 (B) 19

(C) 20 (D) 21

ANS . 8 C

 

9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14

metres towards west, he then turns to

his right and walks 14 metres and then

turns to his left and walks 10 metres.

He again turns to his left and walks 14

metres and reaches to the point E. The

shortest distance between A and E is

(A) 38              (B) 42

(C) 52              (D) 24

ANS . 9 D

 

10. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around

a round table. A is between E and F. E

is opposite to D and C is not in either

of the neighbouring seats of E. The

person opposite to B is

(A) C   (B) D

(C) A   (D) F

ANS . 10 D

 

11. The missing term in the series

2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is

(A) 238 (B) 432

(C) 542 (D) 320

ANS . 11 A

 

12. In certain city the Taxi charges

comprise of a fixed charge and the

charge of the distance travelled. A

person paid ` 156 for a journey of

16 km and another person paid ` 204

for the journey of 24 km. The amount

paid by a passenger who has travelled

30 km is

(A) 236            (B) 240

(C) 248            (D) 256

ANS . 12 B

 

13. In certain code HEALTH is written as

KHDOWK. The code of NORTH will be

(A) QRUWK (B) RQWUK

(C) RWQUK (D) RWUKQ

ANS . 13 A

 

14. Yadav, Arjun, Rajesh and Kamal play

cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play tennis

but do not play football. Yadav does

not play Badminton but play golf.

Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal

sometimes plays Badminton. Who

does play only cricket ?

(A) Yadav       (B) Arjun

(C) Rajesh       (D) Kamal

ANS . 14 B

 

15. A deductive argument can not be

valid :

(A) If its premise / premises is/are

true and its conclusion is true.

(B) If its premise / premises is /are

true and its conclusion is false.

(C) If its premise / premises is/are

false and its conclusion is false.

(D) If its premise / premises is / are

false and its conclusion is true.

ANS . 15 B

 

16. An analogical argument is

strengthened by

(A) making the claim bolder while

its premises remain unchanged.

(B) reducing the claim made on the

basis of the premises affirmed.

(C) remaining the claim unchanged

while the evidence in its support

is found to exhibit greater

frailty.

(D) None of the above.

ANS . 16 B

 

17. If two propositions cannot both be

false but may both be true, what is the

relation between the two propositions ?

(A) Contrary

(B) Sub-contrary

(C) Sub-alternation

(D) Contradictory

ANS .

 

18. Given below are some codes of

arrangements of three items in order of

wider scope. Select the correct code.

(A) Garments, cloth and shirts

(B) Cloth, garments and shirts

(C) Shirts, garments and cloth

(D) Garments, shirts and cloth

ANS .

 

19. What is equivalent of the statement

‘All atheists are pessimists’ ?

(A) All non-pessimists are nonatheists.

(B) All non-atheists are nonpessimists.

(C) All pessimists are atheists.

(D) None of the above.

ANS .

 

In the following table, trends in production

of energy in India by primary sources are

given. Study the table and answer

Question Nos. 20 to 23 : (Production in

peta Joules)

Year Coal &

Lignite

Crude

Petroleum

Natural

Gas

Electricity

(Hydro &

Nuclear)

Total

2006-07 7459 1423 1223 4763 14,868

2007-08 7926 1429 1248 4944 15,547

2008-09 8476 1403 1265 5133 16,277

2009-10 9137 1411 1830 4511 16,889

2010-11 9207 1579 2012 5059 17,857

ANS .

 

20. In which year primary sources

recorded the lowest growth in total

production of energy ?

(A) 2007–08 (B) 2008–09

(C) 2009–10 (D) 2010–11

ANS .

 

21. Which source of energy has shown

the highest growth rate in production

during 2006-07 to 2010-11 ?

(A) Coal & lignite

(B) Crude petroleum

(C) Hydro & nuclear electricity

(D) Total production of energy

ANS .

 

22. Which one of the following primary

sources of energy has recorded the

highest growth in production in

2008–09 ?

(A) Coal & lignite

(B) Crude petroleum

(C) Natural gas

(D) Hydro & nuclear electricity

ANS .

 

23. In which year, production of hydro

and nuclear electricity was almost

double the production of crude

petroleum and natural gas taken

together ?

(A) 2006–07 (B) 2007–08

(C) 2008–09 (D) 2009–10

ANS .

 

24. The Internet ethical protocol is called

(A) net protocol          (B) netiquette

(C) net ethics               (D) net morality

ANS .

 

25. Commercial messages on the net are

identified as

(A) Net ads

(B) Internet commercials

(C) Webmercials

(D) Viral advertisements

ANS .

 

26. Manuel Castelle was the first to use

the term

(A) Internet society

(B) Electronic society

(C) Network society

(D) Telematic society

ANS .

 

27. GIF stands for

(A) Global Information Format

(B) Graphics Information Format

(C) Graphics Interchange File

(D) Graphics Interchange Format

ANS .

 

28. Which one of the following is not an

Operating System ?

(A) IBM AIX

(B) Linux

(C) Sun Solaris

(D) Firefox

ANS .

 

29. Which of the following is/are a

minority institution(s) ?

1. Punjabi University, Patiala

2. Osmania University, Hyderabad

3. Kashmir University, Srinagar

4. St. Stephens College, Delhi

Select the correct answer from the

code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 4

(C) 2 only (D) 4 only

ANS .

 

30. Which of the following statements are

correct about the National Advisory

Council (NAC) ?

1. The National Advisory Council

is a statutory body.

2. It is headed by the Prime

Minister of India.

3. It facilitates constant interaction

with the leaders of civil society.

4. It provides policy and legislative

inputs to the Government of

India.

Select the correct answer from the

code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4

ANS .

 

31. Which of the following are voluntary

provisions in the 73rd Constitutional

Amendment Act (1992) ?

1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting

elections to Panchayats.

2. Indirect elections to the post of

Chairperson of Panchayats at the

intermediate and district levels.

3. Representation of Members of

Parliament and State Legislature

on Panchayati Raj institutions.

4. Reservation of seats for backward

classes.

Select the correct answer from the

code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4

ANS . 31 D

 

32. In which of the following States the

segment of population, which is in

majority, enjoys the benefit of

reservation of seats in the State

Assembly ?

(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram

(B) Assam and Nagaland

(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam

(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh

ANS . 32 A

 

33. Which of the following are the ways

of acquiring Indian citizenship ?

1. Birth

2. Descent

3. Naturalisation

4. Incorporation of territory

Select the correct answer from the

code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANS . 33 D

 

34. Which of the following statements

about the Union Public Service

Commission are correct ?

1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.

2. It serves as an advisory body.

3. It is called upon to advise the

Government in regard to

representation of the Scheduled

Castes and Scheduled Tribes in

the Civil Service.

4. It is consulted on appointments

of Chairman and members of

Tribunals and Commissions.

Select the correct answer from the

code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2

ANS . 34 D

 

Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 35 to 40 :

I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women’s International Year in 1975

when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity.

Representatives from different political parties and women’s organizations were on the

committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna

encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her

involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty

in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an adorable

person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human

spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited.

In later years – around late eighties and early nineties – Aruna Asaf Ali’s health began to

deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes –

action for women’s advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation

of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had

drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely

person. She passed away in July 1996.

 

35. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?

(A) Women’s International Year’s Committee

(B) Steering Committee of Women’s International Year

(C) A Committee of Publicity

(D) Women’s Organizations

ANS . 35 B

 

36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ?

Choose the answer from codes given below :

(i) Representatives from different political parties.

(ii) Representatives from the leftist parties.

(iii) Representatives from the women’s organizations.

(iv) None of the above.

Codes :

(A) (i), (iii) (B) (i), (ii)

(C) (i), (ii), (iii) (D) (iv)

ANS . 36 A

 

37. Aruna earned respect because of

(A) she identified with the leftists

(B) she did not associate with any political party

(C) chairing a Steering Committee

(D) she identified with women’s organizations

ANS . 37 B

 

38. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right ?

(A) Women Organizations      (B) Leftists

(C) Steering Committee          (D) Some Political Parties

ANS . 38 B

 

39. Aruna’s health began to deteriorate from

(A) 1985 – 2002 (B) 1998 – 2000

(C) 1981 – 2000 (D) 1989 – 2001

ANS . 39 C

 

40. Aruna’s pet cause(s) in her life was/ were

(A) Role of media (B) Economic justice

(C) Reaffirmation of values in public affairs (D) All the above

ANS . 40 D

 

41. A good teacher must be

(A) resourceful and autocratic

(B) resourceful and participative

(C) resourceful and authoritative

(D) resourceful and dominant

ANS . 41 B

 

42. Which one of the following is the best

method of teaching ?

(A) Lecture method

(B) Discussion method

(C) Demonstration method

(D) Question-Answer method

ANS . 42 C

 

43. Successful Communication in

classroom teaching is

(A) Circular

(B) Reciprocal

(C) Directional

(D) Influential

ANS . 43 B

 

44. Which one of the following types of

evaluation assesses the learning

progress to provide continuous

feedback to both teachers and students

during instruction ?

(A) Placement evaluation

(B) Formative evaluation

(C) Diagnostic evaluation

(D) Summative

ANS . 44 B

 

45. Which one of the following is a scaled

down teaching situation ?

(A) Macro teaching

(B) Team teaching

(C) Cooperative teaching

(D) Micro teaching

ANS . 45 D

 

46. CLASS stands for

(A) Complete Literacy and Studies

in Schools

(B) Computer Literates and

Students in Schools

(C) Computer Literacy and Studies

in Schools

(D) Centre for Literacy and Studies

in Schools

ANS . 45 C

 

47. Which one of the following is not a

type of experimental method ?

(A) Single group experiment

(B) Residual group experiment

(C) Parallel group experiment

(D) Rational group experiment

ANS . 47 B

 

48. Which one of the following is not a

non-parametric test ?

(A) t-test

(B) Sign test

(C) Chi-square test

(D) Run test

ANS . 48 A

 

49. Read the following statements – one

labelled as Assertion (A) and the other

as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Qualitative research

in India has a long way to go to

reach international standards.

Reason (R) : Because the funding

agencies do not support

qualitative research in academic

institutions.

Find the correct answer from the

codes given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and

(R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but

(R) is not the correct

explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

ANS . 49 C

 

50. Identify the correct sequence of

research steps :

(A) Selection of topic, review of

literature, data collection,

interpretation of findings

(B) Review of literature, selection

of topic, data collection,

interpretation of findings

(C) Selection of topic, data

collection, review of literature,

interpretation of findings

(D) Selection of topic, review of

literature, interpretation of

findings, data collection

ANS . 50 A

 

51. Deconstruction is a popular method of

research in

(A) Basic Science

(B) Applied Science

(C) Social Science

(D) Literature

ANS . 51 D

 

52. With which one of the following

techniques communality is associated ?

(A) Univariate analysis

(B) Factor analysis

(C) Case studies

(D) SWOT analysis

ANS . 52 B

 

53. The variable which impacts the

relationship between an independent

variable and a dependent variable is

known as

(A) antecedent variable

(B) precedent variable

(C) predictor variable

(D) control variable

ANS . 53 D

 

54. Which one of the following is a nonprobability

sampling method ?

(A) Simple Random Sampling

(B) Stratified Sampling

(C) Cluster Sampling

(D) Quota Sampling

ANS . 54 D

 

55. By the year 2022, the Climate Change

Action Plan of Government of India

aims at installing

(A) 20,000 MW of wind power

(B) 25,000 MW of wind power

(C) 20,000 MW of solar power

(D) 10,000 MW of solar power

ANS . 55 C

 

56. Which one of the following biosphere

reserves has UNESCO recognition ?

(A) Manas

(B) Kanchenjunga

(C) Seshachalam Hills

(D) Greater Nicobar

ANS . 56 D

 

57. Which activity contributes to water

pollution more than any other

throughout world ?

(A) Agriculture

(B) Hydroelectric power generation

(C) Industry

(D) Urbanisation

ANS . 57 A

 

58. Match List – I with List – II and find

the correct answer from the codes

given below :

List – I

(Biosphere

Reserve)

List – II

(Area of

Location)

a. Nilgiri i. Deccan

Peninsula

b. Manas ii. Chhattisgarh

c. Similipal iii. Eastern

Himalaya

d. Achankmar-

Amarkantak

iv. Western

Ghat

Codes :

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iii iv i

(C) iii iv ii i

(D) iv iii i ii

ANS . 58 D

 

59. G5 are the five most important

emerging economies of world. Which

one of the following does not form

part of G5 ?

(A) Mexico      (B) Brazil

(C) China        (D) Korea

ANS . 59 D

 

60. Which of the following nations has

the maximum per capita emissions of

carbon di-oxide ?

(A) China

(B) Japan

(C) USA

(D) India

ANS . 60 C

 

 

UGC - NET JUNE 2013 (08 SEPT, 2013)

ANSWER KEYS (PAPER I)

Question Number

  W X Y Z

1 A A B B

2 A D B C

3 B D B C

4 D B B D

5 A A A D

6 D B C D

7 C B A D

8 C C A D

9 D D C A

10 D B B D

11 A C C D

12 B B C B

13 A B D A

14 B D D B

15 B C D B

16 B B D C

17 B A D D

18 B C A B

19 A A D C

20 C D D B

21 A B B B

22 A D A D

23 C D B C

24 B C B B

25 C D C A

26 C A D C

27 D D B A

28 D D C D

29 D C B B

30 D A B D

31 D A D D

32 A B C C

33 D D B D

34 D A A A

35 B D C D

36 A C A D

37 B C D C

38 B D B A

39 C D D A

40 D A D B

41 B B C D

42 C A D A

43 B B A D

44 B B D C

45 D B D C

46 C B C D

47 B B A D

48 A A A A

49 C C B B

50 A A D A

51 D A A B

52 B C D B

53 D B C B

54 D C C B

55 C C D B

56 D D D A

57 A D A C

58 D D B A

59 D D A A

60 C D B C

 

UGC NET JRF JUNE 2013 PAPER-I SET-W

 

UGC NET JRF JUNE 2013     PAPER-I    SET-W

 

Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.

Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.

In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will

be evaluated.

 

1. Which one of the following references

is written as per Modern Language

Association (MLA) format ?

(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of

Electronics,

New Delhi : Prentice Hall of

India, 2005

(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of

Electronics,

New Delhi : Prentice Hall of

India, 2005

(C) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of

Electronics,

New Delhi – Prentice Hall of

India, 2005

(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of

Electronics.

New Delhi : Prentice Hall of

India, 2005

Ans. 1 | D

 

2. A workshop is

(A) a conference for discussion on a

topic.

(B) a meeting for discussion on a

topic.

(C) a class at a college or a

university in which a teacher

and the students discuss a topic.

(D) a brief intensive course for a

small group emphasizing the

development of a skill or

technique for solving a specific

problem.

Ans. 2 | D |

 

3. A working hypothesis is

(A) a proven hypothesis for an

argument.

(B) not required to be tested.

(C) a provisionally accepted

hypothesis for further research.

(D) a scientific theory.

Ans. 3 | C

 

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (4 to 9) :

The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white

marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of a four-quartered garden,

evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 metres. Outside

the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais

and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other

imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given

specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but

it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular

name. In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the Illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i-

Munavvara).

Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal

court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the griefstricken

emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six

months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the

mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had

belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from

the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing

cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price

was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s

further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding

that he provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within

his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the

Agra fort were constructed concurrently.

Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates

much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated

the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete

.

4. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral

domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is

(A) Burhanpur             (B) Makrana

(C) Amber                   (D) Jaipur

Ans. 4 | B

 

5. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by

(A) Shah Jahan (B) Tourists

(C) Public (D) European travelers

Ans. 5 | D

 

6. Point out the true statement from the following :

(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.

(B) Red sand stone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.

(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh.

(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’.

Ans. 6 | C

 

7. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known

(A) Mumtazabad         (B) Mumtaz Mahal

(C) Zainabad               (D) Rauza-i-Munavvara

Ans. 7 | D

 

8. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period

(A) 1632 – 1636 A.D.             (B) 1630 – 1643 A.D.

(C) 1632 – 1643 A.D.             (D) 1636 – 1643 A.D.

Ans. 8 |  C

 

9. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as

(A) Farman                              (B) Sale Deed

(C) Sale-Purchase Deed          (D) None of the above

Ans. 9 | A

 

10. In the process of communication,

which one of the following is in the

chronological order ?

(A) Communicator, Medium,

Receiver, Effect, Message

(B) Medium, Communicator,

Message, Receiver, Effect

(C) Communicator, Message,

Medium, Receiver, Effect

(D) Message, Communicator,

Medium, Receiver, Effect

Ans. 10 | C

 

11. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper

in India was started in 1780 by

(A) Dr. Annie Besant

(B) James Augustus Hicky

(C) Lord Cripson

(D) A.O. Hume

Ans. 11 | B

 

12. Press censorship in India was imposed

during the tenure of the Prime Minister

(A) Rajeev Gandhi

(B) Narasimha Rao

(C) Indira Gandhi

(D) Deve Gowda

Ans. 12 | C

 

13. Communication via New media such

as computers, teleshopping, internet

and mobile telephony is termed as

(A) Entertainment

(B) Interactive communication

(C) Developmental communication

(D) Communitarian

Ans. 13 | B

 

14. Classroom communication of a

teacher rests on the principle of

(A) Infotainment

(B) Edutainment

(C) Entertainment

(D) Enlightenment

Ans. 14 | B

 

15. ________ is important when a teacher

communicates with his/her student.

(A) Sympathy

(B) Empathy

(C) Apathy

(D) Antipathy

Ans. 15 | B

 

16. In a certain code GALIB is

represented by HBMJC. TIGER will

be represented by

(A) UJHFS (B) UHJSF

(C) JHUSF (D) HUJSF

Ans. 16 | A

 

17. In a certain cricket tournament 45

matches were played. Each team

played once against each of the other

teams. The number of teams

participated in the tournament is

(A) 8                (B) 10

(C) 12              (D) 14

Ans. 17 | B

 

18. The missing number in the series

40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is

(A) 110            (B) 270

(C) 105            (D) 210

Ans. 18 | B

 

19. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which

are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged

in an ascending order. The number at

6th position is

(A) 18              (B) 24

(C) 33              (D) 36

Ans. 19 | C

 

20. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is

100. If c = 70, then the mean of the

remaining numbers is

(A) 30

(B)

85 2

(C)

170 3

(D) 110

Ans. 20 | D

 

21. If the radius of a circle is increased by

50%, the perimeter of the circle will

increase by

(A) 20% (B) 30%

(C) 40% (D) 50%

Ans. 21 | D

 

22. If the statement ‘some men are

honest’ is false, which among the

following statements will be true.

Choose the correct code given below :

(i) All men are honest.

(ii) No men are honest.

(iii) Some men are not honest.

(iv) All men are dishonest.

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Ans. 22 | B

 

23. Choose the proper alternative given in

the codes to replace the question

mark.

Bee – Honey, Cow – Milk, Teacher – ?

(A) Intelligence           (B) Marks

(C) Lessons                 (D) Wisdom

Ans. 23 | D

 

24. P is the father of R and S is the son of

Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the

sister of S, how is Q related to T ?

(A) Wife

(B) Sister-in-law

(C) Brother-in-law

(D) Daughter-in-law

Ans. 24 | B

 

25. A definition put forward to resolve a

dispute by influencing attitudes or

stirring emotions is called

(A) Lexical                  (B) Persuasive

(C) Stipulative             (D) Precisions

Ans. 25 | B

 

26. Which of the codes given below

contains only the correct statements ?

Statements :

(i) Venn diagram is a clear method

of notation.

(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct

method of testing the validity of

categorical syllogisms.

(iii) In Venn diagram method the

premises and the conclusion of a

categorical syllogism is

diagrammed.

(iv) In Venn diagram method the

three overlapping circles are

drawn for testing a categorical

syllogism.

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

(D) (i), (iii) & (iv)

Ans. 26 | B

 

27. Inductive reasoning presupposes

(A) unity in human nature

(B) integrity in human nature

(C) uniformity in human nature

(D) harmony in human nature

(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)

Ans. 27 | C

 

Read the table below and based on this

table answer questions from 28 to 33 :

Area under Major Horticulture Crops

(in lakh hectares)

Year Fruits Vegetables Flowers Total

Horticulture

Area

2005-06 53 72 1 187

2006-07 56 75 1 194

2007-08 58 78 2 202

2008-09 61 79 2 207

2009-10 63 79 2 209

 

28. Which of the following two years

have recorded the highest rate of

increase in area under the total

horticulture ?

(A) 2005–06 & 2006–07

(B) 2006–07 & 2008–09

(C) 2007–08 & 2008–09

(D) 2006–07 & 2007–08

Ans. 28 | D

 

29. Shares of the area under flowers,

vegetables and fruits in the area under

total horticulture are respectively :

(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent

(B) 30, 38 and 1 percent

(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent

(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent

Ans. 29 | C

 

30. Which of the following has recorded

the highest rate of increase in area

during 2005-06 to 2009-10 ?

(A) Fruits

(B) Vegetables

(C) Flowers

(D) Total horticulture

Ans. 30 | C

 

31. Find out the horticultural crop that has

recorded an increase of area by around

10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10

(A) Fruits

(B) Vegetables

(C) Flowers

(D) Total horticulture

Ans. 31 | B

 

32. What has been the share of area under

fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area

under total horticulture in 2007- 08 ?

(A) 53 percent (B) 68 percent

(C) 79 percent (D) 100 percent

Ans. Ans. 32 | B

 

33. In which year, area under fruits has

recorded the highest rate of increase ?

(A) 2006-07 (B) 2007-08

(C) 2008-09 (D) 2009-10

Ans. 33 | A

 

34. ‘www’ stands for

(A) work with web

(B) word wide web

(C) world wide web

(D) worth while web

Ans. 34 | C

 

35. A hard disk is divided into tracks

which is further subdivided into

(A) Clusters

(B) Sectors

(C) Vectors

(D) Heads

Ans. 35 | B

 

36. A computer program that translates a

program statement by statement into

machine language is called a/an

(A) Compiler

(B) Simulator

(C) Translator

(D) Interpreter

Ans. 36 | D

 

37. A Gigabyte is equal to

(A) 1024 Megabytes

(B) 1024 Kilobytes

(C) 1024 Terabytes

(D) 1024 Bytes

Ans. 37 | A

 

38. A Compiler is a software which

converts

(A) characters to bits

(B) high level language to machine

language

(C) machine language to high level

language

(D) words to bits

Ans. 38 | B

 

39. Virtual memory is

(A) an extremely large main

memory.

(B) an extremely large secondary

memory.

(C) an illusion of extremely large

main memory.

(D) a type of memory used in super

computers.

Ans. 39 | C

 

40. The phrase ‘tragedy of commons’ is

in the context of

(A) tragic event related to damage

caused by release of poisonous

gases.

(B) tragic conditions of poor people.

(C) degradation of renewable free

access resources.

(D) climate change.

Ans. 40 | C

 

41. Kyoto Protocol is related to

(A) Ozone depletion

(B) Hazardous waste

(C) Climate change

(D) Nuclear energy

Ans. 41 | C

 

42. Which of the following is a source of

emissions leading to the eventual

formation of surface ozone as a

pollutant ?

(A) Transport sector

(B) Refrigeration and Airconditioning

(C) Wetlands

(D) Fertilizers

Ans. 42 | A

 

43. The smog in cities in India mainly

consists of

(A) Oxides of sulphur

(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt

hydrocarbons

(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM

(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone

Ans. 43 | B

 

44. Which of the following types of

natural hazards have the highest

potential to cause damage to humans ?

(A) Earthquakes

(B) Forest fires

(C) Volcanic eruptions

(D) Droughts and Floods

Ans. 44 | D

 

45. The percentage share of renewable

energy sources in the power

production in India is around

(A) 2-3% (B) 22-25%

(C) 10-12% (D) < 1%

Ans. 45 | C

 

46. In which of the following categories

the enrolment of students in higher

education in 2010-11 was beyond the

percentage of seats reserved ?

(A) OBC students

(B) SC students

(C) ST students

(D) Woman students

Ans. 46 | A

 

47. Which one of the following

statements is not correct about the

University Grants Commission (UGC) ?

(A) It was established in 1956 by an

Act of Parliament.

(B) It is tasked with promoting and

coordinating higher education.

(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan

funds from the Central

Government.

(D) It receives funds from State

Governments in respect of State

Universities.

Ans. 47 | D

 

48. Consider the statement which is

followed by two arguments (I) and

(II) :

Statement : Should India switch

over to a two party

system ?

Arguments : (I) Yes, it will lead

to stability of

Government.

(II) No, it will limit the

choice of voters.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.

(B) Only argument (II) is strong.

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is

strong.

Ans. 48 | C

 

49. Consider the statement which is

followed by two arguments (I) and

(II) :

Statement : Should persons with

criminal background be

banned from contesting

elections ?

Arguments : (I) Yes, it will

decriminalise politics.

(II) No, it will

encourage the

ruling party to file

frivolous cases

against their

political opponents.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.

(B) Only argument (II) is strong.

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is

strong.

Ans.  49 | A

 

50. Which of the following statement(s)

is/are correct about a Judge of the

Supreme Court of India ?

1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is

appointed by the President of

India.

2. He holds office during the

pleasure of the President.

3. He can be suspended, pending

an inquiry.

4. He can be removed for proven

misbehaviour or incapacity.

Select the correct answer from the

codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4

Ans. 50 | D

 

51. In the warrant of precedence, the

Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next

only to

(A) The President

(B) The Vice-President

(C) The Prime Minister

(D) The Cabinet Ministers

Ans. 51 | C

 

52. The black-board can be utilised best

by a teacher for

(A) putting the matter of teaching in

black and white

(B) making the students attentive

(C) writing the important and

notable points

(D) highlighting the teacher himself

Ans. 52 | C

 

53. Nowadays the most effective mode of

learning is

(A) self study

(B) face-to-face learning

(C) e-learning

(D) blended learning

Ans. 53 | C&D

 

54. At the primary school stage, most of the

teachers should be women because they

(A) can teach children better than

men.

(B) know basic content better than

men.

(C) are available on lower salaries.

(D) can deal with children with love

and affection.

Ans. 54 | D

 

55. Which one is the highest order of learning ?

(A) Chain learning                              (B) Problem-solving learning

(C) Stimulus-response learning           (D) Conditioned-reflex learning

Ans. 55 | D

 

56. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he

(A) has control over students.                         (B) commands respect from students.

(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.       (D) is very close to higher authorities.

Ans. 56 | B

 

57. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words.” The statement means that the teacher should

 (A) use diagrams in teaching.            (B) speak more and more in the class.

(C) use teaching aids in the class.       (D) not speak too much in the class.

Ans. 57 | C

 

58. A research paper

(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.

(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.

(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.          

(D) can be published in more than one journal.

Ans. 58 | C

 

59. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics’ ?

(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.

(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other eople in the relevant field or relevant prior work.

(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons in a research aper.

(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favour even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper.

Ans. 59 | B

 

60. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability ?

(A) Simple Random Sampling

(B) Stratified Sampling

(C) Quota Sampling

(D) Cluster Sampling

Ans. 60 | C

 

UGC - NET JUNE 2013 PAPER : PAPER I DOE :30-06-2013 BOOKLET CODE : W --| QNO | KEY | QNO | KEY | QNO | KEY | QNO | KEY s

 1 | D | 26 | B | 51 | C | 76 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----

2 | D | 27 | C | 52 | C | 77 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|--

3 | C | 28 | D | 53 | C&D | 78 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

4 | B | 29 | A | 54 | D | 79 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|

 5 | D | 30 | C | 55 | D | 80 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

6 | C | 31 | B | 56 | B | 81 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

7 | D | 32 | B | 57 | C | 82 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

8 | C | 33 | A | 58 | C | 83 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

9 | A | 34 | C | 59 | B | 84 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

10 | C | 35 | B | 60 | C | 85 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

11 | B | 36 | D | 61 | | 86 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

12 | C | 37 | A | 62 | | 87 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

13 | B | 38 | B | 63 | | 88 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

14 | B | 39 | C | 64 | | 89 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

15 | B | 40 | C | 65 | | 90 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

16 | A | 41 | C | 66 | | 91 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

17 | B | 42 | A | 67 | | 92 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

18 | B | 43 | B | 68 | | 93 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

19 | C | 44 | D | 69 | | 94 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

20 | D | 45 | C | 70 | | 95 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

21 | D | 46 | A | 71 | | 96 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

22 | B | 47 | D | 72 | | 97 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

23 | D | 48 | C | 73 | | 98 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

24 | B | 49 | A | 74 | | 99 | | |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| |

25 | B | 50 | D | 75 | | 100 | | --------------------------------------------