गुरुवार, 7 जुलाई 2022

UGC/NTA NET/JRF June 2014 Paper – I Test Booklet Code – W

 

 

UGC/NTA NET/JRF June 2014 Paper – I Test Booklet Code – W

Note : • This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.

 • Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.

 • In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will

be evaluated.

1. Break-down in verbal communication

is described as

 (A) Short circuit

 (B) Contradiction

 (C) Unevenness

 (D) Entropy

ANS. (D) Entropy

 

2. The Telephone Model of

Communication was first developed

in the area of

 (A) Technological theory

 (B) Dispersion theory

 (C) Minimal effects theory

 (D) Information theory

ANS. (D) Information theory

 

3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for

2013 has been conferred on

 (A) Karan Johar (B) Amir Khan

 (C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar

ANS. (D) Gulzar

 

4. Photographs are not easy to

 (A) publish (B) secure

 (C) decode (D) change

ANS. (C) decode

 

5. The grains that appear on a television

set when operated are also referred to

as

 (A) sparks (B) green dots

 (C) snow (D) rain drops

ANS. (C) decode

 

6. In circular communication, the

encoder becomes a decoder when

there is

 (A) noise (B) audience

 (C) criticality (D) feedback

ANS. (D) feedback

 

7. In a post-office, stamps of three

different denominations of ` 7, ` 8,

` 10 are available. The exact amount

for which one cannot buy stamps is

 (A) 19 (B) 20

 (C) 23 (D) 29

ANS. (A) 19

 

8. In certain coding method, the word

QUESTION is encoded as

DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is

the code word for the word

RESPONSE ?

 (A) OMESUCEM

 (B) OMESICSM

 (C) OMESICEM

 (D) OMESISCM

ANS. (C) OMESICEM

 

9. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ....

is continued in the same pattern,

which one of the following is not a

term of this series ?

 (A) 31 (B) 32

 (C) 33 (D) 35

ANS. (C) 33

 

10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML,

PP, ...........by choosing one of the

following option given :

 (A) TS (B) ST

 (C) RS (D) SR

ANS. (A) TS

 

11. A man started walking from his house

towards south. After walking 6 km, he

turned to his left and walked 5 km.

Then he walked further 3 km after

turning left. He then turned to his left

and continued his walk for 9 km. How

far is he away from his house ?

 (A) 3 km (B) 4 km

 (C) 5 km (D) 6 km

ANS. (C) 5 km

 

12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99

without the digits 2 and 7. How many

numbers have been written ?

 (A) 32 (B) 36

 (C) 40 (D) 38

ANS. (A) 32

 

13. “If a large diamond is cut up into little

bits, it will lose its value just as an

army is divided up into small units of

soldiers, it loses its strength.”

 The argument put above may be

called as

 (A) Analogical (B) Deductive

 (C) Statistical (D) Causal

ANS. (A) Analogical

 

14. Given below are some characteristics

of logical argument. Select the code

which expresses a characteristic

which is not of inductive in character.

 (A) The conclusion is claimed to

follow from its premises.

 (B) The conclusion is based on causal

relation.

 (C) The conclusion conclusively

follows from its premises.

 (D) The conclusion is based on

observation and experiment.

ANS. (C) The conclusion conclusively

follows from its premises.

 

15. If two propositions having the same

subject and predicate terms can both

be true but can not both be false, the

relation between those two

propositions is called

 (A) contradictory

 (B) contrary

 (C) subcontrary

 (D) subaltern

ANS. (C) subcontrary

 

16. Given below are two premises and

four conclusions drawn from those

premises. Select the code that

expresses conclusion drawn validly

from the premises (separately or

jointly).

Premises :

 (a) All dogs are mammals.

 (b) No cats are dogs.

Conclusions :

 (i) No cats are mammals.

 (ii) Some cats are mammals.

 (iii) No dogs are cats.

 (iv) No dogs are non-mammals.

Codes :

(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii)

 (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)

ANS. (C) (iii) and (iv)

 

17. Given below is a diagram of three

circles A, B & C inter-related with

each other. The circle A represents the

class of Indians, the circle B

represents the class of scientists and

circle C represents the class of

politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent

different regions. Select the code

containing the region that indicates

the class of Indian scientists who are

not politicians.

 Codes :

 (A) q and s only

 (B) s only

 (C) s and r only

 (D) p, q and s only

ANS. (B) s only

 

Read the following table carefully. Based upon

this table answer questions from 18 to 22 :

Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a

country (Thousand Hectares)

Year Government

canals

Private

canals

Tanks Tube

wells &

other

wells

Other

sources

Total

1997-98 17117 211 2593 32090 3102 55173

1998-99 17093 212 2792 33988 3326 57411

1999-00 16842 194 2535 34623 2915 57109

2000-01 15748 203 2449 33796 2880 55076

2001-02 15031 209 2179 34906 4347 56672

2002-03 13863 206 1802 34250 3657 53778

2003-04 14444 206 1908 35779 4281 56618

2004-05 14696 206 1727 34785 7453 58867

2005-06 15268 207 2034 35372 7314 60196

 

18. Which of the following sources of

Irrigation has registered the largest

percentage of decline in Net area under

irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?

 (A) Government canals

 (B) Private canals

 (C) Tanks

 (D) Other sources

ANS. (C) Tanks

 

19. Find out the source of Irrigation that has

registered the maximum improvement

in terms of percentage of Net irrigated

area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.

 (A) Government canals

 (B) Tanks

 (C) Tube wells and other wells

 (D) Other sources

ANS. (D) Other sources

 

20. In which of the following years, Net

irrigation by tanks increased at the

highest rate ?

 (A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01

 (C) 2003-04 (D) 2005-06

ANS. (D) 2005-06

 

21. Identify the source of Irrigation that

has recorded the maximum incidence

of negative growth in terms of Net

irrigated area during the years given

in the table.

 (A) Government canals

 (B) Private canals

 (C) Tube wells and other wells

 (D) Other sources

ANS. (A) Government canals

 

22. In which of the following years, share

of the tube wells and other wells in the

total net irrigated area was the highest ?

 (A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01

 (C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05

ANS. (C) 2002-03

 

23. The acronym FTP stands for

 (A) File Transfer Protocol

 (B) Fast Transfer Protocol

 (C) File Tracking Protocol

 (D) File Transfer Procedure

ANS. (A) File Transfer Protocol

 

24. Which one of the following is not a/an

image/graphic file format ?

 (A) PNG (B) GIF

 (C) BMP (D) GUI

ANS. (D) GUI

 

25. The first web browser is

 (A) Internet Explorer

 (B) Netscape

 (C) World Wide Web

 (D) Firefox

ANS. (C) World Wide Web

 

26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is

loaded to the memory by

 (A) RAM (B) ROM

 (C) CD-ROM (D) TCP

ANS. (B) ROM

 

27. Which one of the following is not the

same as the other three ?

 (A) MAC address

 (B) Hardware address

 (C) Physical address

 (D) IP address

ANS. (D) IP address

 

28. Identify the IP address from the

following :

 (A) 300 215 317 3

 (B) 302 215@ 417 5

 (C) 202 50 20 148

 (D) 202 – 50 – 20 – 148

ANS. (C) 202 50 20 148

 

29. The population of India is about 1.2

billion. Take the average consumption

of energy per person per year in India

as 30 Mega Joules. If this

consumption is met by carbon based

fuels and the rate of carbon emissions

per kilojoule is 15 × 106

 kgs, the total

carbon emissions per year from India

will be

 (A) 54 million metric tons

 (B) 540 million metric tons

 (C) 5400 million metric tons

 (D) 2400 million metric tons

ANS. (B) 540 million metric tons

 

30. Which of the following cities has been

worst affected by urban smog in

recent times ?

 (A) Paris

 (B) London

 (C) Los Angeles

 (D) Beijing

ANS. (D) Beijing

 

31. The primary source of organic

pollution in fresh water bodies is

 (A) run-off urban areas

 (B) run-off from agricultural forms

 (C) sewage effluents

 (D) industrial effluents

ANS. (C) sewage effluents

 

32. ‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving

 (A) eruption of large amount of

material

 (B) strong winds

 (C) strong water waves

 (D) strong winds and water waves

ANS. (A) of large amount of

material

 

33. In order to avoid catastrophic

consequences of climate change, there

is general agreement among the countries

of the world to limit the rise in average

surface temperature of earth compared

to that of pre-industrial times by

 (A) 1.5 °C to 2 °C

 (B) 2.0 °C to 3.5 °C

 (C) 0.5 °C to 1.0 °C

 (D) 0.25 °C to 0.5 °C

ANS. (A) 1.5 °C to 2 °C

 

34. The National Disaster Management

Authority functions under the Union

Ministry of

 (A) Environment

 (B) Water Resources

 (C) Home Affairs

 (D) Defence

ANS. (C) Home Affairs

 

35. Match List – I and List – II and select

the correct answer from the codes

given below :

List – I List – II

a. Flood 1. Lack of rainfall of

sufficient duration

b. Drought 2. Tremors produced

by the passage of

vibratory waves

through the rocks

of the earth

c. Earthquake 3. A vent through

which molted

substances come out

d. Volcano 4. Excess rain and

uneven distribution

of water

 Codes :

 a b c d

 (A) 4 1 2 3

 (B) 2 3 4 1

 (C) 3 4 2 1

 (D) 4 3 1 2

ANS. (A) 4 1 2 3

 

36. Which one of the following green

house gases has the shortest residence

time in the atmosphere ?

 (A) Chlorofluorocarbon

 (B) Carbon dioxide

 (C) Methane

 (D) Nitrous oxide

ANS. (C) Methane

 

37. Consider the following statements and

select the correct answer from the

code given below :

 i. Rajasthan receives the highest

solar radiation in the country.

 ii. India has the fifth largest installed

wind power in the world.

 iii. The maximum amount of wind

power is contributed by Tamil

Nadu.

 iv. The primary source of uranium

in India is Jaduguda.

Codes :

(A) i and ii (B) i, ii and iii

 (C) ii and iii (D) i and iv

ANS. (D) i and iv

 

 

38. Who among the following is the de

facto executive head of the Planning

Commission ?

 (A) Chairman

 (B) Deputy Chairman

 (C) Minister of State for Planning

 (D) Member Secretary

ANS. (B) Deputy Chairman

 

39. Education as a subject of legislation

figures in the

 (A) Union List

 (B) State List

 (C) Concurrent List

 (D) Residuary Powers

ANS. (C) Concurrent List

 

40. Which of the following are Central

Universities ?

 1. Pondicherry University

 2. Vishwa Bharati

 3. H.N.B. Garhwal University

 4. Kurukshetra University

 Select the correct answer from the

code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4

 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4

ANS. (A) 1, 2 and 3

 

41. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii). Statement : India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal. Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy. (ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.

Codes : (A) Only argument (i) is strong. (B) Only argument (ii) is strong. (C) Both the arguments are strong. (D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

ANS. (A) Only argument (i) is strong.

 

42. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept ? (A) Assam University (B) Delhi University (C) Hyderabad University (D) Pondicherry University

ANS. (B) Delhi University

 

43. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University ? 1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament. 2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University. 3. The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University. 4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court. Select the correct answer from the code given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANS. (C) 1, 2 and 3

 

44. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching ?

(A) Students asking questions (B) Maximum attendance of the students

(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom (D) Students taking notes

ANS. (C) Pin drop silence in the classroom

 

45. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?

(A) Lecture (B) Discussion (C) Demonstration (D) Narration

ANS. (C) Demonstration

 

46. Dyslexia is associated with

 (A) mental disorder (B) behavioural disorder (C) reading disorder (D) writing disorder

ANS. (C) reading disorder

 

47. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to

(A) INFLIBNET (B) Consortium for Educational Communication (C) National Knowledge Commission (D) Indira Gandhi National Open University

ANS. (B) Consortium for Educational Communication

 

48. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) effective (B) cognitive (C) affective (D) selective

ANS. (C) affective

 

49. Who among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm ? (A) Peter Haggett (B) Von Thunen (C) Thomas Kuhn (D) John K. Wright

ANS. (C) Thomas Kuhn

 

50. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in (A) the appendix (B) a separate chapter (C) the concluding chapter (D) the text itself

ANS. (C) Thomas Kuhn

 

51. A thesis statement is

(A) an observation (B) a fact (C) an assertion (D) a discussion

ANS. (C) an assertion

 

52. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as

(A) positive paradigm (B) critical paradigm (C) natural paradigm (D) interpretative paradigm

ANS. (D) interpretative paradigm

 

53. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling ?

(A) Simple random (B) Purposive (C) Systematic (D) Stratified

ANS. (B) Purposive

 

54. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.

(A) Placement (B) Diagnostic (C) Formative (D) Summative

ANS. (C) Formative

 

55. The research stream of immediate application is

(A) Conceptual research (B) Action research (C) Fundamental research (D) Empirical research

ANS. (B) Action research

 

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60 : Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the ‘State’. The Indian ‘State’s’ special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word ‘State’ above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of state ‘sovereignty’ or of any church-and-state dichotomy. Modern Indian ‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India’s famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians.

56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?

(A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership

(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economic and political sense (C) Social integration of all groups (D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups.

ANS. (B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economic and political sense

 

57. The author uses the word ‘State’ to highlight (A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history. (B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time. (C) The concept of state sovereignty. (D) Dependence on religion.

ANS. (D) Dependence on religion

 

58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian ‘Secularism’ ?

(A) No discrimination on religious considerations (B) Total indifference to religion (C) No space for social identity (D) Disregard for social law

ANS. (A) No discrimination on religious considerations

 

59. The basic construction of Thomas More’s Utopia was inspired by (A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance. (B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers. (C) Social inequality in India. (D) European perception of Indian State.

ANS. (A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.

60. What is the striking feature of modern India ? (A) A replica of Utopian State (B) Uniform laws (C) Adherence to traditional values (D) Absence of Bigotry

ANS.  (D) Absence of Bigotry

 

UGC NET - June-2014

ANSWER KEYS (PAPER - I)

Question Number

W X Y Z

1 D A C A

2 D C A D

3 D C B B

4 C A D C

5 C B A A

6 D C C B

7 A D A C

 8 C D C B

9 C A C C

10 A C A A

11 C C D C

12 A D B C

13 A C C D

14 C B A B

15 C D B C

16 C C C B

17 B A B C

18 C D C D

19 D C A C

20 D A C A

21 A B C D

22 C C D B

23 A A B D

24 D C C A

25 C A B C

26 B B C C

27 D C D D

28 C A A D

29 B D A D

30 D B D D

31 C C B A

32 A A D C

33 A C D A

34 C C C C

35 A B C C

36 C C D C

37 D A D A

38 B D D A

39 C C C C

40 A D A B

41 A B C C

42 B C A A

43 C B C C

44 A C C C

45 C D C D

46 C A A D

47 B A A B

48 C D C D

49 C B B C

50 D D D A

51 C D A D

52 D C C C

53 B C C A

54 C D D B

55 B D C D

56 B C B C

57 D C D C

58 A A C A

59 A C A C

60 D A D A

 

 

 

 

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