PAPER-I
December, 2013
This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated.
Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be evaluated.
1. The post-industrial society is designated as
(A) Information society (B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society (D) Non-agricultural society
2. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
(A) Commercial communication (B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction (D) Political campaigns
3. Internal communication within institutions is done through
(A) LAN B) WAN (C) EBB (D) MMS
4. Virtual reality provides
(A) Sharp pictures (B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience (D) Preview of new films
5. The first virtual university of India came up in
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
6. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they
appeared. Use the code given below :
(i) Limits to (ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future (iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) (B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
7. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of
desertification ?
(A) Africa (B) Asia (C) South America (D) North America
8 Women are closer to nature than men. What kind of perspective is
this
(A) Realist (B) Essentialist (C) Feminist (D) Deep ecology
9. Which one of the following is not matter a global concern in the
removal of tropical forests ?
(A) heir ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of
ozone layer.
B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the
earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture
content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.
10. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-
environment interaction is one of the following :
(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach
11. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in
urban areas is
(A) Thermal power sector (B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector (D) Domestic sector
12. energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A) Methane (B) Hydrogen (C) LPG (D) CNG
13. Which one of the following Councils
has been disbanded in 2013 ?
(A) Distance Education Council
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research andTraining (NCERT) (D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
14. Which of the following statements
correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council ?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with thez esponsibility of assessing and accrediting
institutions of higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
15. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction (B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction (D) Writ Jurisdiction
16. Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States. Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
17. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission ?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information
Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of
4. It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
18. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN – The Hindu?
2013. Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18
States?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
19. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will be
(A) EKNJFTGP (B) EJKNFTGP (C) KNJFGTP (D) None of these.
20. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is ` 7/- whereas that of a mango is ` 5/-. If the person has ` 38, the number of apples he can buy is
(A) 1 B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
21. A man pointing to a lady said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wifeâ€. The lady is related to man as (A) Mother's sister (B) Grand (C) Mother-in-law (D) Sister of Father-in-law
22. In this series 6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6 how many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8
23. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is (A) 85 (B) 60 (C) 70 (D) 65
24. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years (B) 8 years (C) 12 years (D) 16 years
25. Which of the following is a social network ?
(A) amazon.com (B) eBay (C) gmail.com (D) Twitter
26. The population information is called parameter while the orresponding
sample information is known as
(A) Universe (B) Inference (C) Sampling design D) Statistics
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 27 to 32 :
Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO’s assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has
done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritising heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training
institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe. Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to
enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps overemphasise. The effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and
conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.
27. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study
of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO’s assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.
28. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration.
29. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research
and dissemination of awareness for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of India’s meaningful assistance.
30. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments, percentage comes to
(A) 10 percent (B) 11 percent (C) 12 percent (D) 13 percent
31. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iv) (C) (i), (ii) (D) (i), (iii), (iv)
32. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural
heritage. The full form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) (D) (i), (iii), (iv)
33. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B) punish those causing disturbance
(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance in the class.
34. Effective teaching is a function of
(A) Teacher's satisfaction. (B) Teacher's honestycommitment.
(C) Teacher's making students learn and understand.
(D) Teacher's liking for professional excellence
35. The most appropriate meaning of learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Inculcation of knowledge
36. Arrange the following teaching process in order :
(i) Relate the present knowledge with previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
37. CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.
38. Teacher’s role at higher education level is to
(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition among students.
(D) help students to solve their problems.
39. The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by
(A) German Social Scientists (B) American Philosophers
(C) British Academicians (D) Italian Political Analysts
40. The sequential operations in scientific research are
(A) Co-variation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation,
Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination Spurious
Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation,
(C) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations,
(D) Theorisation, Generalisation, Co-variation.
41. In sampling, the lottery method is used for
(A) Interpretation (B) Theorisation
(C) Conceptualisation (D) Randomisation
42. Which is the main objective of research ?
(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of
known facts
43. Sampling error decreases with the
(A) decrease in sample size (B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization (D) process of analysis
44. The principles of fundamental research are used in
(A) action research (B) applied research
(C) philosophical research (D) historical research
45. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience (B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience (D) Negative audience
46. Classroom communication can be described as
(A) Exploration (B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified narration (D) Discourse
47. Ideological codes shape our collective
(A) Productions (B) Perceptions (C) Consumptions (D) Creations
48. In communication, myths have power, but are
(A) uncultural. (B) insignificant. (C) imprecise. (D) unpreferred.
49. The first multi-lingual news agency of
(A) Samachar (B) API (C) Hindustan Samachar (D) Samachar Bharati
50. Organisational communication can also be equated with
(A) intra-personal communication. (B) inter-personal communication.
(C) group communication. (D) mass communication.
51. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are
such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between
them is called
(A) Contradictory (B) Contrary (C) Sub-contrary (D) Sub-alternation
52. Ananya and Krishna can speak follow English. Bulbul can write and
speak Hindi as Archana does Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali ?
(A) Archana (B) Bulbul (C) Ananya (D) Krishna
53. A stipulative definition may be said to be
(A) Always true (B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false (D) Neither true nor false
54. When the conclusion of an argument follows from its remise/premises
conclusively, the argument is called
(A) Circular argument (B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument (D) Analogical argument
55. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from
the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those
planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is.
What type of argument is contained in the above passage ?
(A) Deductive (B) Astrological (C) Analogical (D) Mathematical
56. Given below are two premises. Four 56. conclusions
are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code
that states the conclusion validly drawn. Premises :
(i) All saints are religious. (major)
(ii) Some honest persons are saints.
(minor) Codes :
(A) All saints are honest.
(B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are religious.
(D) All religious persons are honest.
Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different regions of the world in different years. Study the able carefully and answer questions from 57 to 60 based on this table. Number of Foreign Tourist
Region Arrivals
2007 2008 2009
Western 1686083 1799525 1610086
Europe 1007276 1027297 1024469
North 1007276 1027297 1024469 982428 1051846 982633
America 03475 332925 348495
South Asia 982428 1051846 982633
South East 303475 332925 348495 352037 355230 318292
Asia 171661 215542 201110
East Asia 352037 355230 318292 5081504 5282603 5108579
West Asia 171661 215542 201110
Total FTAs 5081504 5282603 5108579 in India
57. Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe (B) North America
(C) South Asia (D) South East Asia
58. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009 ?
(A) Western Europe (B) North America (C) South Asia (D) West Asia
59. Find out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of
share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.
(A) Western Europe (B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia (D) West Asia
60. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A) Western Europe (B) North America (C) South Asia (D) East Asia
UGC - NET DECEMBER 2013ANSWER KEYS (Paper I)
W X Y Z
1 D A A D
2 B B B C
3 B A C A
4 B C D C
5 D D C D
6 B C A D
7 C A B A
8 C B D B
9 C A D C
10 A D C B
11 C B A B
12 D B C D
W X Y Z
13 C A D C
14 C B D C
15 C C A B
16 B D B D
17 D C C C
18 A A B B
19 C B B A
20 A D D A
21 B D C D
22 A C C D
23 C A B B
24 D C D B
W X Y Z
25 C D C B
26 A D B D
27 B A A B
28 A B A C
29 D C D C
30 B B D C
31 B B B A
32 A D B C
33 B C B D
34 C C D C
35 D B B C
36 C D C C
W X Y Z
37 A C C B
38 B B C D
39 D A A A
40 D A C C
41 C D D A
42 A D C B
43 C B C A
44 D B C C
45 D B B D
46 A D D C
47 B B A A
48 C C C B
W X Y Z
49 B C A A
50 B C B D
51 D A A B
52 C C C B
53 C D D A
54 B C C B
55 D C A C
56 C C B D
57 B B A C
58 A D D A
59 A A B B
60 D C B D
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